24 Sep 2005

Why did Jesus not treat sinners the same as the Pharisees?

Submitted by theshovel
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am i correct in saying that all flesh justifies itself?? Why then, does it seem that the “sinners” did not justify themselves. And if they did, why did Jesus not treat them the same as the pharisees. Why does Jesus treat one kind of “flesh” differently than an other?? When both are still “flesh”. something is screwy in my thinking here. but i just can’t figure it out. Dave

This is the judgment, that the Light has come into the world, and men loved the darkness rather than the Light, for their deeds were evil. For everyone who does evil hates the Light, and does not come to the Light for fear that his deeds will be exposed. But he who practices the truth comes to the Light, so that his deeds may be manifested as having been wrought in God. John 3:19-21

It was not sinners over Pharisees that had anything to do with who came to Jesus, but it was something altogether different. It was something which was contrary to the darkness into which all were trapped. It was a life that lived in the truth, and did the truth. It was that which was born of God that came to him. The contrast between the reactions of certain Pharisees and certain sinners revealed something too striking to ignore. For the Pharisees were in possession of the scriptures that testified of Christ and yet stood on their own pathetic righteousness; while the “sinners” were those who stood condemned by the ones who should have shown mercy instead.

The sinners Jesus came in contact with (for the most part) were like those who have been scorned by the religious self-righteous in our day who still see themselves standing in the shadow of those who are closer to God. For any of the despised to be revealed as being “of God,” while the supposedly righteous folks who condemned them to be shown as antagonistic toward God, only makes it obviously clear that something else comes into play. Enter Jesus, enter life, enter the miraculous working of God. The new creation cannot help but come to the light.

so, why did jesus choose to come to the outcasts? if it is miriculous he could have came to the self-righteous as well. is it so grace might seem all the more to be grace? but, then is that not like God choosing? it then begins to make me feel like god doesn’t care. because what about the self-righteous that i know and love (including myself). are they automaticaaly disqualified so to speak?

Dave, it is exactly here that the most amazing reality of his grace shows through to the self-righteous for he chose one of the most self-righteous men available (Paul) to become the very one who would communicate the life of Christ to both insider and outsider – thank God, as otherwise I would have been left out of the mix!! And do you remember what this most self-righteous man said about God’s choosing of him? That God had rescued the chief sinner of all!! Yeah, self-righteousness is sinnerhood on steroids!! Praise God for his infinite wisdom and grace.

Love, Jim

Thank you Jim!!!
So has anyone aswered why the different emotion (ie. anger, compassion) he had to the different type of people (ie. pharisees, “sinners”)??? Is it just simply because the one tried to validate that which was sooo corupt and the other simply was so fed up with their corruption?? Even though both needed a miracle…needed life, Jesus’ seems to deal differently with them.

Dave, I think that’s exactly it. The religious leaders knew they were bending and twisting Moses’ Law for their own purposes so they could claim it was God’s authority for them to do whatever they wanted while at the same condemning others for breaking certain other commands. It was a deliberate two-faced judgment.

Jim

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