1 Jan 2003

Unforgivable sin?

Submitted by theshovel
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Okay, you asked about the unforgivable sin (also known as blasphemy of the Holy Spirit)

"Truly I say to you, all sins shall be forgiven the sons of men, and whatever blasphemies they utter; but whoever blasphemes against the Holy Spirit never has forgiveness, but is guilty of an eternal sin", because they were saying, "He has an unclean spirit." Mark 3:28-30

You know what I find rather ironic regarding the unforgivable sin? The reality that everybody but those to whom it was addressed think it's talking about them. These were the same religious authorities who claimed to see. Jesus told them he came so that those who were blind would be given sight, but those who said "We see" would become blind (which was a play off the actual physical healing given to the man born blind). They were very offended by this because they had worked hard to achieve their positions of spiritual leaders.

I'm not suggesting that it only refers to these particular men, but instead it speaks to the whole performance-based mindset of man. Jesus spoke this the way that he did to these men for a reason. The reason? They projected themselves to their world as having achieved their own righteousness, and they used the written words of the Scriptures to validate their deceptions. The fact is that they knew they were not the spiritually superior leaders of men they claimed to be, and yet they twisted everything and everybody to help project such an illusion. They designed very a carefully chosen set of laws and rules to obey, but all they really did was to construct an acceptable appearance in which they could seem to be keeping the law while making it extremely difficult for others to measure up to their standards. They kept themselves convinced by this mass illusion. We have kept the same illusion going ever since.

I am giving you all these background thoughts so that you can catch the SENSE of what Jesus said and WHY he said it, instead of merely trying to figure out what the words might mean - technically speaking. You see, once you can somewhat relate with the situation the words will find their place. It would be one thing if Jesus told the publicans and sinners of a specific sin that would not be forgiven them, because they would have already assumed that they would receive no forgiveness based on everything they had heard from those who supposedly spoke for God. But Jesus declared this unforgivable sin to those who had proclaimed their own righteousness before people. As far as forgiveness went, these men were the last ones who would have been questioned.

Now, what did Jesus actually tell these men? He basically told them the very same thing he had been telling them all along:

I did not come for the righteous, but for the sinners Mark 2:17, Matthew 9:13

Consider the impact of his words to them that "ALL SINS shall be forgiven the sons of men, and WHATEVER blasphemies they utter". They had spent their lives telling the people that ALL their sins and blasphemies would be HELD AGAINST them ... not to be forgiven. Jesus' words were a direct reversal of everything these men stood for! These men had claimed to be above such sins and blasphemies, and they had subjected the people to much condemnation. Jesus' message to them was the same as later stated to the same group:

Truly I say to you that the tax collectors and prostitutes will get into the kingdom of God before YOU. Matthew 21:31

Because the self-righteous mindset has prevailed in our religious institutions we have NOT even dared to consider his blanket statement of total coverage for those deemed unworthy: ALL SINS, WHATEVER BLASPHEMIES. Instead, we have had this verse twisted in such a way that those deemed unworthy by the so-called superior ones automatically assume there is this one sin that is going to get them in the end.

So, what is this sin ... and why did Jesus claim it about THEM? "... because they were saying, 'He has an unclean spirit.'" Once again, don't miss the relationship here. Consider the fact that we could find a million and one reasons to claim this toward every one of the sons of men who have ever lived, and we could probably find more than enough adequate scriptural proof to make the claim. But Jesus didn't suggest this at all, for he proclaimed the forgivable-ness of everybody else's sins and blasphemies to make his condemnation toward those who were deemed as justified before their world. You see, they were the right ones who professed the right words, and yet when the one and only truly righteous man who ever lived - because the Spirit within him was of God - had appeared before them and had spoken to them, they professed according to their God-given authority that the spirit within him was unclean. Their rejection of the Spirit of God - whom they claimed to believe - was revealed. They had condemned themselves by their own words. Jesus simply declared what was already true.

Why is there no forgiveness? We have asked the wrong question. The real question should be something more like: how could there be ANY forgiveness in the first place? How could God NOT hold the sins of men against them ... for the soul that sinneth shall die? You see, when Jesus hung on that cross to die HE became removed from the sin through death. When he rose from the dead, it was as the NEW CREATION ... which means that NOTHING that is in CHRIST has any more connection with the sin that once ruled their very lives!! Realize that the Law had made it clear that the attempt to remove the sin from the sinner was proved to be totally ineffective by the constant year after year need to continue the sacrifice. It is only by being taken OUT OF the old dead creation and being brought INTO the new that forgiveness can happen at all. But in having done so, it was done completely.

The "no forgiveness" was the declaration that the old sinful life worked upon by the Law would NEVER be forgiven ... for it COULD not be. Those who put their hope in their own performance by some legal standards of measure are attempting to cure the incurable disease! The only release is found in death. Not the death of the old Adam that remains dead, but the death of the one who was raised to new life!

It is RELIGION that has used the words of the Bible to manufacture the so-called battle of the ages between good and evil. The whole religious concept of heaven vs. hell is one that has also been carefully constructed and swallowed as being designed by God. It's basic concept is found in declaring that good people go to heaven, while bad people go to hell. Though the evangelical world has challenged the premise of good vs bad as wrong by saying it teaches works for salvation it has still held onto the same false perception. By substituting believers in the place of the good and unbelievers in the place of the bad it misunderstands the whole reality of Christ's redemption of the world and leaves a person's destiny in the balances.

I have written more on both heaven and hell and some of that is on the web site. If you will go to the question and answer section and look for the topics Heaven and Hell you will find a few more thoughts on it.

Rest assured that God is not in the business of torture, for His whole purpose in sending His son was to give LIFE. I think you ask these questions because the life of God that is in you has been suffering long under the condemnation that has been pushed upon you by your religious upbringing ... and I think you have sensed this for a LONG time, but have assumed that YOUR objections could not be valid. But God is not impressed with titles or degrees ... or even the lack of them. After all, He is pleased to take the nothings of this world to bring the somethings to naught!! Rejoice my sister.

I look forward to hearing from you again, soon.

Jim :)

New Testament: 

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